[2023] Use Valid New CAS-004 Questions - Top choice Help You Gain Success [Q214-Q236]

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[2023] Use Valid New CAS-004 Questions - Top choice Help You Gain Success

CAS-004 Exam Practice Materials Collection


CompTIA CASP+ certification is an advanced-level certification program that validates the skills and knowledge of cybersecurity professionals. The program is vendor-neutral, covers a wide range of security topics, and is recognized globally by employers and government agencies. IT professionals who hold the CASP+ certification are in high demand and can command higher salaries and better job opportunities.


The CASP+ certification exam is designed to test the candidates' knowledge and skills in various areas such as risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and analysis, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines. CAS-004 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to identify and analyze security risks and develop effective solutions to mitigate them.

 

NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following terms refers to the delivery of encryption keys to a CASB or a third-party entity?

  • A. Key recovery
  • B. Key distribution
  • C. Key sharing
  • D. Key escrow

Answer: D

Explanation:
Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow


NEW QUESTION # 215
A security engineer is making certain URLs from an internal application available on the Internet.
The development team requires the following
- The URLs are accessible only from internal IP addresses
- Certain countries are restricted
- TLS is implemented.
- System users transparently access internal application services in a
round robin to maximize performance
Which of the following should the security engineer deploy?

  • A. An application-aware firewall with geofencing and certificate services using DNS for traffic direction
  • B. DNS to direct traffic and a WAF with only the specific external URLs configured
  • C. A load balancer with IP ACL restrictions and a commercially available PKI certificate
  • D. A load balancer with GeolP restrictions and least-load-sensing traffic distribution

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 216
The Chief Executive Officer )CEO) of a small company decides to use cloud computing to host critical corporate data for protection from natural disasters.
The recommended solution is to adopt the public cloud for its cost savings If the CEO insists on adopting the public cloud model, which of the following would be the BEST advice?

  • A. Ensure the colocation facility implements a robust DRP to help with business continuity planning.
  • B. Ensure the cloud provider supports a secure virtual desktop infrastructure
  • C. Ensure the on-premises datacenter employs fault tolerance and load balancing capabilities.
  • D. Ensure the ISP is using a standard help-desk ticketing system to respond to any system outages

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 217
An organization recently recovered from an attack that featured an adversary injecting Malicious logic into OS bootloaders on endpoint devices Therefore, the organization decided to require the use of TPM for measured boot and attestation, monitoring each component from the IJEFI through the full loading of OS components. of the following TPM structures enables this storage functionality?

  • A. Platform configuration registers
  • B. Endorsement tickets
  • C. Command tag structures with MAC schemes
  • D. Clock/counter structures

Answer: A

Explanation:
TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.


NEW QUESTION # 218
A vulnerability analyst identified a zero-day vulnerability in a company's internally developed software. Since the current vulnerability management system does not have any checks for this vulnerability, an engineer has been asked to create one.
Which of the following would be BEST suited to meet these requirements?

  • A. ARF
  • B. OVAL
  • C. Node.js
  • D. ISACs

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is a standard that would be best suited for creating checks for a zero-day vulnerability in an organization's internally developed software. OVAL is a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. An engineer can use OVAL to create definitions or tests for specific vulnerabilities or states in the software, and then use OVAL-compatible tools to scan or evaluate the software against those definitions or tests. ARF (Asset Reporting Format) is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a standard for expressing information about assets and their characteristics in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. ISACs (Information Sharing and Analysis Centers) are not standards for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but organizations that collect, analyze, and disseminate information about threats, vulnerabilities, incidents, or best practices among different sectors or communities. Node.js is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a runtime environment that allows executing JavaScript code outside of a web browser, enabling the development of scalable web applications or services. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-oval
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide


NEW QUESTION # 219
A company publishes several APIs for customers and is required to use keys to segregate customer data sets.
Which of the following would be BEST to use to store customer keys?

  • A. A public key infrastructure
  • B. A localized key store
  • C. A hardware security module
  • D. A trusted platform module

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 220
A systems administrator was given the following IOC to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server:
post /malicious. php
User-Agent: Malicious Tool V 1.0
Host: www.rcalicious.com
The IOC documentation suggests the URL is the only part that could change. Which of the following regular expressions would allow the systems administrator to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives?

  • A. POST /malicious\. php
  • B. www\. malicious\. com\/malicious. php
  • C. Hose: [a-2] *\.malicious\.com
  • D. malicious. *
  • E. User-Agent: Malicious Tool. *

Answer: C

Explanation:
A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a search pattern for matching text. A regex can be used to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server by matching the indicators of compromise (IOC) in the network traffic.
In this case, the systems administrator should use the regex Host: [a-z]*.malicious.com to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives, because this regex would:
Match the Host header in the HTTP request, which specifies the domain name of the command-and-control server.
Allow any subdomain under the malicious.com domain, by using the character class [a-z]*, which matches zero or more lowercase letters.
Escape the dot character in the domain name, by using the backslash , which prevents it from being interpreted as a wildcard that matches any character.
Not match any other parts of the IOC that could change, such as the URL path, the User-Agent header, or the HTTP method.


NEW QUESTION # 221
Which of the following is the MOST important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS how much electrical power to output?

  • A. Assuring the integrity of messages
  • B. Importing the availability of messages
  • C. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages
  • D. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages for an Industrial Control System (ICS) is to assure the integrity of messages. Ensuring the integrity of control messages is critical for the safe and reliable operation of the system, as any tampering or alteration of the messages could have serious consequences, including equipment damage and physical harm to people.


NEW QUESTION # 222
Given the following log snippet from a web server:

Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack?

  • A. SQL injection
  • B. Brute-force
  • C. Cross-site scripting
  • D. Cross-site request forgery

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 223
Which of the following is required for an organization to meet the ISO 27018 standard?

  • A. All network traffic must be inspected.
  • B. GDPR equivalent standards must be met
  • C. COBIT equivalent standards must be met
  • D. All Pll must be encrypted.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 224
A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.
Which of the following solutions does this describe?

  • A. Split tunneling
  • B. SSH tunneling
  • C. Full tunneling
  • D. Asymmetric routing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel.
https://cybernews.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/


NEW QUESTION # 225
An auditor Is reviewing the logs from a web application to determine the source of an Incident. The web application architecture Includes an Internet-accessible application load balancer, a number of web servers In a private subnet, application servers, and one database server In a tiered configuration. The application load balancer cannot store the logs. The following are sample log snippets:

Which of the following should the auditor recommend to ensure future incidents can be traced back to the sources?

  • A. Enable the x-Forwarded-For header al the load balancer.
  • B. Install a certificate signed by a trusted CA.
  • C. Use stored procedures on the database server.
  • D. Install a software-based HIDS on the application servers.
  • E. Store the value of the $_server ( ' REMOTE_ADDR ' ] received by the web servers.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 226
A security architect needs to implement a CASB solution for an organization with a highly distributed remote workforce. One Of the requirements for the implementation includes the capability to discover SaaS applications and block access to those that are unapproved or identified as risky. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?

  • A. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
  • B. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic to enforce DI-P and encryption policies.
  • C. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
  • D. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic to enforce DLP and encryption policies.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to achieve the objective of discovering SaaS applications and blocking access to unapproved or identified as risky ones is to implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy (C). This solution would allow the security architect to inspect all web traffic and enforce access control policies centrally. This solution also allows the security architect to detect and block risky SaaS applications.


NEW QUESTION # 227
A threat analyst notices the following URL while going through the HTTP logs.

Which of the following attack types is the threat analyst seeing?

  • A. SQL injection
  • B. XSS
  • C. CSRF
  • D. Session hijacking

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 228
A company wants to implement a new website that will be accessible via browsers with no mobile applications available. The new website will allow customers to submit sensitive medical information securely and receive online medical advice. The company already has multiple other websites where it provides various public health data and information. The new website must implement the following:
* The highest form Of web identity validation
* Encryption of all web transactions
* The strongest encryption in-transit
* Logical separation based on data sensitivity
Other things that should be considered include:
* The company operates multiple other websites that use encryption.
* The company wants to minimize total expenditure.
* The company wants to minimize complexity
Which of the following should the company implement on its new website? (Select TWO).

  • A. HSTS
  • B. SSO
  • C. EV certificate
  • D. Wildcard certificate
  • E. Mutual authentication
  • F. Certificate pinning

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization's identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:
https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificate
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens


NEW QUESTION # 229
An organization developed a social media application that is used by customers in multiple remote geographic locations around the world. The organization's headquarters and only datacenter are located in New York City.
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure the following requirements are met for the social media application:
Low latency for all mobile users to improve the users' experience
SSL offloading to improve web server performance
Protection against DoS and DDoS attacks
High availability
Which of the following should the organization implement to BEST ensure all requirements are met?

  • A. Dual gigabit-speed Internet connections with managed DDoS prevention
  • B. A load-balanced group of reverse proxy servers with SSL acceleration
  • C. A CDN with the origin set to its datacenter
  • D. A cache server farm in its datacenter

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 230
A company undergoing digital transformation is reviewing the resiliency of a CSP and is concerned about meeting SLA requirements in the event of a CSP incident.
Which of the following would be BEST to proceed with the transformation?

  • A. An active-active solution within the same tenant
  • B. A multicloud provider solution
  • C. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration
  • D. An on-premises solution as a backup

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
An active-active cluster does nothing if the cloud provider goes down. One of the main features of multi-cloud is redundancy.https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cloud/what-is-multicloud/


NEW QUESTION # 231
A developer implement the following code snippet.

Which of the following vulnerabilities does the code snippet resolve?

  • A. Missing session limit
  • B. SQL inject
  • C. Buffer overflow
  • D. Information leakage

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 232
As part of an organization's ongoing vulnerability assessment program, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to evaluate the organization's systems, personnel, and facilities for various threats.
As part of the assessment the CISO plans to engage an independent cybersecurity assessment firm to perform social engineering and physical penetration testing against the organization's corporate offices and remote locations.
Which of the following techniques would MOST likely be employed as part of this assessment?
(Choose three.)

  • A. Badge skimming
  • B. SQL injection
  • C. Rogue AP substitution
  • D. Tailgating
  • E. Privilege escalation
  • F. TOC/TOU exploitation
  • G. Vulnerability scanning
  • H. Vishing

Answer: A,D,H


NEW QUESTION # 233
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

  • A. No-execute
  • B. Execute never
  • C. Total memory encryption
  • D. Virtual memory encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified Reference:
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture-VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching


NEW QUESTION # 234
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

  • A. No-execute
  • B. Execute never
  • C. Total memory encryption
  • D. Virtual memory encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
XN is a security feature that is designed to prevent certain types of malware from executing in memory. When XN is enabled, the CPU will not execute code that is stored in memory regions that have been marked as XN. This can help to prevent malware from inserting itself into another process's memory location and executing from there.
No-execute (NX) is a similar security feature that is used to prevent certain types of malware from executing in memory. NX works by marking certain memory regions as non-executable, so that the CPU will not execute code from those regions.


NEW QUESTION # 235
Over the last 90 days, many storage services has been exposed in the cloud services environments, and the security team does not have the ability to see is creating these instance.
Shadow IT is creating data services and instances faster than the small security team can keep up with them. The Chief information security Officer (CIASO) has asked the security officer (CISO) has asked the security lead architect to architect to recommend solutions to this problem.
Which of the following BEST addresses the problem best address the problem with the least amount of administrative effort?

  • A. Implement a CASB solution and track cloud service use cases for greater visibility.
  • B. Capture all log and feed then to a SIEM and then for cloud service events
  • C. Implement a user-behavior system to associate user events and cloud service creation events.
  • D. Compile a list of firewall requests and compare than against interesting cloud services.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 236
......


The CASP+ exam covers a range of advanced cybersecurity topics, including enterprise security architecture, risk management, incident response, research and collaboration, and more. It also includes performance-based questions and simulations to test the practical application of cybersecurity skills. With the CASP+ certification, IT professionals can demonstrate their expertise in managing complex cybersecurity environments and their ability to make critical decisions in high-pressure situations. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is ideal for experienced cybersecurity professionals looking to take their careers to the next level and become recognized leaders in the field.

 

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