Clear your concepts with 1z0-1059-22 Questions Before Attempting Real exam [Q43-Q62]

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Clear your concepts with 1z0-1059-22 Questions Before Attempting Real exam

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Oracle 1z0-1059-22 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Explain Contracts, Performance Obligations and Contract Maintenance
  • Revenue Management Overview
Topic 2
  • Describe Revenue Management Integration Requirements
  • Explain how to create OTBI reporting objects
Topic 3
  • Configure The Revenue Management Application
  • Process Customer Contract Source Documents

 

NEW QUESTION 43
How can you access an implementation task in Functional Setup Manager. (choose 3)

  • A. By navigation to an offering's functional area
  • B. By navigating from the Implementation Project
  • C. By searching
  • D. By navigating from the Welcome Springboard

Answer: A,B,C

 

NEW QUESTION 44
You have defined 3 Contract Identification rules: Rule A, Rule B, and Rule C. You then decide that Rule C needs to be the first rule executed when the "Identify Customer Contracts" process runs.
Which attribute needs to be updated to achieve this objective?

  • A. Freeze Period
  • B. Default Classification
  • C. Source Document Type
  • D. Priority

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 45
When is it required to populate the number of periods and percentage of revenue (seen in the image below) while defining a revenue scheduling rule?

  • A. when it is a business requirement
  • B. when the Deferred Revenue box is checked
  • C. when the Type is Fixed or Variable
  • D. when Context Values are populated

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 46
Which three statements describe how Revenue Management creates accounting contracts to meet the new ASC 606 / IFRS 15 revenue recognition standards?

  • A. by grouping source document lines intro contracts for each identified customer
  • B. by restricting users from excluding contract lines
  • C. by identifying and creating one or more performance obligations for a given accounting contract
  • D. by only creating contracts that are source system specific
  • E. by allowing manual allocation of Total Transaction Price across performance obligations
  • F. by calculating Total Transaction Price for contracts

Answer: A,D,E

 

NEW QUESTION 47
When deciding how to set up the system to recognize revenue, it is important to understand the extent of revenue deferral and the subsequent timing of revenue recognition. Which two statements are true when you
consider that recognition depends on the nature of the contingency? (Choose two)

  • A. Post-billing customer acceptance clauses must expire (implicit acceptance), or be manually accepted (explicit acceptance), before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized.
  • B. Time-based contingencies can expire, but the contingency will have to be removed manually before the revenue is recognized if payment is not due yet
  • C. Payment-based contingencies do not always require payment before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
  • D. Time-based contingencies must not expire before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
  • E. Pre-billing customer acceptance clauses require the recording of customer acceptance in the feeder system, or its expiration, before importing into Receivables for invoicing. Customer acceptance or its expiration
    must occur before the contingency can be removed and the order can be imported into Receivables for invoicing.

Answer: A,E

 

NEW QUESTION 48
Which statement does NOT describe how revenue is handled under the latest standards under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

  • A. You value the accrual at estimated consideration and it is a monetary debt.
  • B. You book the invoiced amount to the P&L when you meet the regulatory definition by Industry.
  • C. You accrue for goods and services that you owe to customers because either you or they have relied on the contract. You no longer defer revenue.
  • D. You calculate the liability at inception and book it when either party acts. An Act could be shipping or invoicing.
  • E. Liability is a list of goods and services you actually owe to the customers for future satisfaction via transfer.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 49
Which statement is NOT applicable to Performance Obligation Templates?

  • A. Oracle delivers three predefined Performance Obligation Templates,
  • B. Performance Obligation Templates are specific to the business and cannot be predefined.
  • C. Performance Obligation Templates take precedence over Performance Obligation Rules.
  • D. Performance Obligation Templates can be associated to a Revenue Price Profile.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 50
Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

  • A. You cannot have overlapping periods.
  • B. Gaps between periods are not allowed.
  • C. If effective periods are not defined, Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
  • D. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.
  • E. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.

Answer: A,B,D

 

NEW QUESTION 51
Which two settings are related to the "Invalid Line Handling" Revenue Management System Option?

  • A. Preserve contract
  • B. Void contract
  • C. Reject contract
  • D. Reject line
  • E. Reverse line

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r13/wn/fin/releases/19B/19B-financials-wn.htm

 

NEW QUESTION 52
In order to have Revenue Management calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices, four steps must be completed.
Which two are NOT included in the four step process?

  • A. Review the calculated OSSP.
  • B. Close the previous period.
  • C. Approve the OSSP by establishing it.
  • D. Run Create Accounting.
  • E. Run the Calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices program.
  • F. Categorize standalone sales by performance obligation.

Answer: E,F

 

NEW QUESTION 53
What does the creation of an allocation allow you to determine?

  • A. the maximum amount of revenue you can recognize soonest, postponing the minimum until later
  • B. the fair value of each performance obligation
  • C. an allocation of the expected consideration over the performance obligations as if you had sold them separately
  • D. the ability not to revise previously reported revenue for revision, corrections, and other changes

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAOFC/FAOFC2288367.htm

 

NEW QUESTION 54
Oracle Revenue Management is part of_____________________predefined offering.

  • A. Incentive Compensation
  • B. Fusion Accounting Hub
  • C. Financials
  • D. Enterprise Contracts

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 55
In Revenue Management the Selling Amount and Allocated Amount may be different. How does Revenue Management account for this difference?

  • A. It tracks the difference in a Discount Allocation Account at the contract line level.
  • B. It Tracks the difference in a Write-Off Allocation Account at the contract line level.
  • C. It tracks the difference in a Write-off Allocation Account at the contract level.
  • D. It tracks the difference In a Discount Allocation Account at the contract level.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 56
Given Revenue Management uses the Subledger Accounting engine to create journal entries from customer contracts, which Is NOT a predefined Accounting Class?

  • A. Contract Expense
  • B. Contract Revenue
  • C. Contract Asset
  • D. Contract Price Variance
  • E. Contract Liability
  • F. Contract Clearing

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 57
Which statement is true regarding natural accounts: Contract Liability, Contract Asset, Price Variance, and Contract Discount?

  • A. These accounts are optional in Revenue Management.
  • B. If nonexistent, these accounts need to be added to the chart of accounts.
  • C. If nonexistent, these accounts are added automatically to the chart of accounts.
  • D. These accounts are not relevant to Revenue Management.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 58
Which is NOT a Price Band Type?

  • A. Set Band
  • B. Percentage Band
  • C. Quantity Band
  • D. Amount Band

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 59
What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?

  • A. the sum of the SSPs of the components
  • B. the average of your bundled price
  • C. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately
  • D. the list price

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 60
The predefined Revenue Contract Account Activities report originally had only one output option of spreadsheet.
Which output option can you now also choose to assist In handling a large number of records?

  • A. PDF
  • B. HTML
  • C. PowerPoint
  • D. Flat File

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 61
Given Oracle Revenue Management Cloud has predefined integration with Oracle E-Business Suite Financials, which two steps are NOT part of the steps to configure EBS for integration with Revenue Management Cloud?

  • A. Apply appropriate patches to EBS.
  • B. Map the EBS Chart of Accounts to the Cloud General Ledger.
  • C. Run the Deploy System Options process.
  • D. Set the Profile Option AR: Source System Value for Revenue Management.
  • E. Set the System Options in EBS Receivables on the Revenue Management tab.

Answer: B,C

 

NEW QUESTION 62
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