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NEW QUESTION 548
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
- A. Quality metrics
- B. Less rework
- C. Benchmarking
- D. Quality control measurements
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 549
High-level project risks are included in which document?
- A. Project charter
- B. Risk breakdown structure
- C. Business case
- D. Risk register
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.2.1.1 Project Charter
Described in Section 4.1.3.1. The size of the project charter varies depending on the complexity of the project and the information known at the time of its creation. At a minimum, the project charter should define the high-level boundaries of the project. The project team uses the project charter as the starting point for initial planning throughout the Initiating Process Group.
4.1.3.1 Project Charter
The project charter is the document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It documents the business needs, assumptions, constraints, the understanding of the customer's needs and high-level requirements, and the new product, service, or result that it is intended to satisfy, such as:
Project purpose or justification,
Measurable project objectives and related success criteria,
High-level requirements,
Assumptions and constraints,
High-level project description and boundaries,
High-level risks,
Summary milestone schedule,
Summary budget,
Stakeholder list,
Project approval requirements (i.e., what constitutes project success, who decides the project is
successful, and who signs off on the project),
Assigned project manager, responsibility, and authority level, and
Name and authority of the sponsor or other person(s) authorizing the project charter.
Process: 4.1. Develop Project Charter
Definition: The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is a well-defined project start and project boundaries, creation of a formal record of the project, and a direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project.
Inputs
1. Project statement of work
2. Business case
3. Agreements
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Facilitation techniques
Outputs
1. Project charter
NEW QUESTION 550
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
- A. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
- B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
- C. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
- D. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION 551
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
- A. scope management plan
- B. procurement management plan
- C. risk management plan
- D. human resource management plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.1.3.1 Procurement Management Plan
The procurement management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization. It describes how the procurement processes will be managed from developing procurement documents through contract closure. The procurement management plan can include guidance for:
Types of contracts to be used;
Risk management issues;
Whether independent estimates will be used and whether they are needed as evaluation criteria;
Those actions the project management team can take unilaterally, if the performing organization has a
prescribed procurement, contracting, or purchasing department;
Standardized procurement documents, if needed;
Managing multiple suppliers;
Coordinating procurement with other project aspects, such as scheduling and performance reporting;
Any constraints and assumptions that could affect planned procurements;
Handling the long lead times to purchase certain items from sellers and coordinating the extra time
needed to procure these items with the development of the project schedule; Handling the make-or-buy decisions and linking them into the Estimate Activity Resources and Develop
Schedule processes
Setting the scheduled dates in each contract for the contract deliverables and coordinating with the
schedule development and control processes;
Identifying requirements for performance bonds or insurance contracts to mitigate some forms of project
risk;
Establishing the direction to be provided to the sellers on developing and maintaining a work breakdown
structure (WBS);
Establishing the form and format to be used for the procurement/contract statements of work;
Identifying prequalified sellers, if any, to be used; and
Procurement metrics to be used to manage contracts and evaluate sellers.
A procurement management plan can be formal or informal, can be highly detailed or broadly framed, and is based upon the needs of each project.
NEW QUESTION 552
A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?
- A. Defining the scope of the project
- B. Creating a detailed project management plan
- C. Building a collaborative environment
- D. Directing the delivery of the project
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/project-integration-management-overview-part-
2
NEW QUESTION 553
A project team member is estimating the cost of an activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?
- A. Three-point estimating
- B. Analogous estimating
- C. Parametric estimating
- D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://pm4id.org/chapter/9-1-estimating-costs/
NEW QUESTION 554
What output of the Conduct Procurements process is also an input to the Control Procurements process?
- A. Change requests
- B. Agreements
- C. Source selection criteria
- D. Bid documents
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 555
What are the objectives of initiation processes?
- A. Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.
- B. Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charter and identify stakeholders.
- C. Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.
- D. Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 556
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
- A. Plan Scope Management.
- B. Develop Project Charter.
- C. Develop Schedule.
- D. Plan Schedule Management.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 557
A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.
Which process is the project manager executing?
- A. Control Quality
- B. Plan Scope Management
- C. Manage Quality
- D. Plan Quality Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.projectmanager.com/blog/project-quality-management-quick-guide
NEW QUESTION 558
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
- A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
- B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
- C. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
- D. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION 559
DRAG DROP
Match the role with its corresponding job description.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 560
Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
- A. Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan
- B. Project charter, business case, and project management plan
- C. Project charter, business documents, and project management plan
- D. Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.greycampus.com/opencampus/project-management-professional/monitor-stakeholder- engagement
NEW QUESTION 561
Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?
- A. Project buffer
- B. Duration buffer
- C. Feeding buffer
- D. Critical buffer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
6.6.2.3 Critical Chain Method
The critical chain method (CCM) is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. It is developed from the critical path method approach and considers the effects of resource allocation, resource optimization, resource leveling, and activity duration uncertainty on the critical path determined using the critical path method. To do so, the critical chain method introduces the concept of buffers and buffer management. The critical chain method uses activities with durations that do not include safety margins, logical relationships, and resource availability with statistically determined buffers composed of the aggregated safety margins of activities at specified points on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. The resource-constrained critical path is known as the critical chain.
The critical chain method adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities to manage uncertainty.
One buffer, placed at the end of the critical chain, as shown in Figure 6-19, is known as the project buffer and protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain. Additional buffers, known as feeding buffers, are placed at each point where a chain of dependent activities that are not on the critical chain feeds into the critical chain. Feeding buffers thus protect the critical chain from slippage along the feeding chains.
The size of each buffer should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent activities leading up to that buffer. Once the buffer schedule activities are determined, the planned activities are scheduled to their latest possible planned start and finish dates. Consequently, instead of managing the total float of network paths, the critical chain method focuses on managing the remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations of chains of activities.
Figure 6-19. Example of Critical Chain Method
NEW QUESTION 562
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
- A. Power/influence
- B. Salience
- C. Power/interest
- D. Influence/impact
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
13.1.2.1 Stakeholder Analysis
Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. It identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project. It also helps to identify stakeholder relationships (with the project and with other stakeholders) that can be leveraged to build coalitions and potential partnerships to enhance the project's chance of success, along with stakeholder relationships that need to be influenced differently at different stages of the project or phase.
Stakeholder analysis generally follows the steps described below:
Identify all potential project stakeholders and relevant information, such as their roles, departments,
interests, knowledge, expectations, and influence levels. Key stakeholders are usually easy to identify. They include anyone in a decision-making or management role who is impacted by the project outcome, such as the sponsor, the project manager, and the primary customer. Identifying other stakeholders is usually done by interviewing identified stakeholders and expanding the list until all potential stakeholders are included.
Analyze the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate, and classify them so as to define
an approach strategy. In large stakeholder communities, it is important to prioritize the stakeholders to ensure the efficient use of effort to communicate and manage their expectations.
Assess how key stakeholders are likely to react or respond in various situations, in order to plan how to
influence them to enhance their support and mitigate potential negative impacts.
There are multiple classification models used for stakeholders analysis, such as:
Power/interest grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their level or
concern ("interest") regarding the project outcomes;
Power/influence grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their active
involvement ("influence") in the project;
Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement ("influence") in the project
and their ability to effect changes to the project's planning or execution ("impact"); and Salience model, describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their
will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
NEW QUESTION 563
The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 564
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
- A. External
- B. Mandatory
- C. Internal
- D. Discretionary
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.3.2.2 Dependency Determination
Dependencies may be characterized by the following attributes: mandatory or discretionary, internal or external, as described below. Dependency has four attributes, but two can be applicable at the same time in following ways: mandatory external dependencies, mandatory internal dependencies, discretionary external dependencies, or discretionary internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required
or inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project, where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics project, where a prototype has to be built before it can be tested.
Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic or hard dependencies. Technical dependencies may not be mandatory. The project team determines which dependencies are mandatory during the process of sequencing the activities. Mandatory dependencies should not be confused with assigning schedule constraints in the scheduling tool.
Discretionary dependencies. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic,
preferential logic, or soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options. When fast tracking techniques are employed, these discretionary dependencies should be reviewed and considered for modification or removal. The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary during the process of sequencing the activities.
External dependencies. External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and
non-project activities. These dependencies are usually outside the project team's control. For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction project. The project management team determines which dependencies are external during the process of sequencing the activities.
Internal dependencies. Internal dependencies involve a precedence relationship between project
activities and are generally inside the project team's control. For example, if the team cannot test a machine until they assemble it, this is an internal mandatory dependency. The project management team determines which dependencies are internal during the process of sequencing the activities.
NEW QUESTION 565
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
- A. organizational theory
- B. meeting
- C. negotiation
- D. networking
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 566
The project manager is creating the communications management plan.
Which group of inputs is required to begin?
- A. Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan
- B. Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register
- C. Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan
- D. Project charter, project management plan, and project documents
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 567
An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance.
Which type of communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?
- A. Face-to-face meeting
- B. Written report
- C. Informal conversation
- D. Short email update
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 568
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:
- A. beta distribution
- B. triangular distribution
- C. tornado diagram
- D. fishbone diagram
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
11.4.2.2 Quantitative Risk Analysis and Modeling Techniques page 337
Commonly used techniques use both event-oriented and project-oriented analysis approaches, including:
* Sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It helps to understand how the variations in project's objectives correlate with variations in different uncertainties. Conversely, it examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being studied when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. One typical display of sensitivity analysis is the tornado diagram (Figure 11-15), which is useful for comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable.
The Tornado diagram is also helpful in analyzing risk-taking scenarios enabled on specific risks whose quantitative analysis highlights possible benefits greater than corresponding identified negative impacts. A tornado diagram is a special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables. In a tornado diagram, the Y-axis contains each type of uncertainty at base values, and the X- axis contains the spread or correlation of the uncertainty to the studied output. In this figure, each uncertainty contains a horizontal bar and is ordered vertically to show uncertainties with a decreasing spread from the base values.
NEW QUESTION 569
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